More on imputation of active obedience (a doctrine I affirm as an entailment of Christ’s representation of his people).

Two words: righteous and sinless. Putting aside that Biblical nuance of what the Bible might mean in some cases by righteous, we typically use it to denote moral perfection.

So, is sinlessness something less than moral perfection?

It seems to me that righteousness and sinlessness are synonyms. If righteousness has more of a postitive meaning, then it still refers to the same thing. One can describe a person as both righteous and sinless just like one can describe a contact lense as both concave and convex. Both have to be true for either to be true.

It seems to me that others believe that righteousness and sinlessness are like peanut butter and jelly, too completely different things but both necessary for a sandwhich.

So someone could, in theory, stand before God sinless and God would say, what?–“Sorry? you’re still not righteous enough for me to accept you”?

Wasn’t Adam created righteous?