We know that Adam and Christ make up “two Adams” from many places in the Bible. Not least we know it as Pauline theology from First Corinthian 15.

We also know it from Romans 5, but I wonder…

Therefore, just as sin came into the world through one man, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because all sinned— for sin indeed was in the world before the law was given, but sin is not counted where there is no law. Yet death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those whose sinning was not like the transgression of Adam, who was a type of the one who was to come.

So Adam sinned in a way (transgressed) that wasn’t possible until Moses. Why wouldn’t Adam and his transgression be a type of Israel and its greater transgression which brought about the salvation of the nations? The one man and his transgression was a type of the nation and many transgressions.

For the judgment following one trespass brought condemnation, but the free gift following many trespasses brought justification.

As Paul writes later:

So I ask, did they stumble in order that they might fall? By no means! Rather through their trespass salvation has come to the Gentiles, so as to make Israel jealous. Now if their trespass means riches for the world, and if their failure means riches for the Gentiles, how much more will their full inclusion mean!…

For just as you were at one time disobedient to God but now have received mercy because of their disobedience, so they too have now been disobedient in order that by the mercy shown to you they also may now receive mercy. For God has consigned all to disobedience, that he may have mercy on all.