Justification is God’s act. It is a declared verdict.
So how can it be silent? How can it be “invisible” or produce an “invisible” company? (The Westminster Confession makes no such claim, but I’m addressing popular calvinism).
There are sources of explanation, but I’m not sure which are best to use or how they can combine.
Jesus’ resurrection was a declared verdict (the word “vindicated” should be translated as “justified”)
Peter says the giving of the Spirit to the Gentiles was God’s “testimony” or “witness.” This courtroom language could indicate the giving of the Spirit is God’s declaration that those to whom He has bestowed His Spirit are officially righteous in his sight. This would seem to require pentecost-like miracles, but Peter hones in on faith as the ultimate sign. So could the gift of faith by which one is justified also be the declaration that one is righteous?
If one puts a couple of passages together, it is possible that the confession, “Jesus is Lord” is a sign from God one is justified… except that Paul seems to be making a distinction between heart and tongue corresponding to justification and salvation. Not sure what to do about that.
Here are the two passages:
You know that when you were pagans you were led astray to mute idols, however you were led. Therefore I want you to understand that no one speaking in the Spirit of God ever says “Jesus is accursed!” and no one can say “Jesus is Lord” except in the Holy Spirit.
if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved. For with the heart one believes and is justified, and with the mouth one confesses and is saved.
One might note that Jesus’ baptism involved a literal declared verdict (voice from heaven and the sending of the Spirit in the form of a dove). This combines adoption and justification (both the giving of new legal status) and relates the sign of baptism.
I could dredge up some other possibilities, maybe. But I don’t have a firm position to enunciate or defend. I am posting this to register my complaint that no one seems to feel any burden to explain how a declared verdict can be silent. This ought to be an object of scrutiny. The only person I know who has raised the issue is Dr. Peter Leithart.
Gaffin:
Pentecost, then, is the de facto justification of the church. Along with Christ’s resurrection and ascension…it is a declaration, in effect, of the church’s righteous standing before God. Pentecost is not only the efficacious empowering of the church for kingdom service (it is that, to be sure), but is also the effective demonstration that the church is no longer subject to God’s wrath. The eschatological life of the Spirit poured out on the church at Pentecost seals its acquittal and the definitive removal of it guilt…The Spirit of Pentecost is the Spirit of justification.
Joel Garver comments:
From this quotation, it would seem that in Gaffin’s interpretation of Luke-Acts justification is first and foremost a forensic event that marks out the true covenant community as God’s forgiven eschatological people and thus is as much ecclesiological as it is soteriological.
Isn’t the heart vs. tongue a matter of sincerity/veracity of actions? The tongue is an action from the heart which could contain lies/deception. But if the tongue and heart both testify that Jesus is the resurrected Lord, then the faithful/true works of the heart, tongue and whole body become less adulterated, making salvation ensured.
God’s normal means of manifesting/working soteriological justification is through marriage/covenant/membership with the ecclesiological body.
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Declared to whom? Maybe its not silent, but I’m not being addressed?
If I hear the news from my lawyer or the bailiff, then justification can happen without me or anyone else hearing until the news is passed along.
Just pointing out a permutation that seems out of consideration, and perhaps this is particularly significant when contrasted with the open vindicated at the last day articulated in the str ctc.