Something Doug wrote gives me a chance to ask a question that has been bothering me.
This test — that of obeying God throughout the course of my life — was a test I flunked in my first father Adam, and which I passed with flying colors in the founder of the last humanity, the Lord Jesus.
Assuming the obedience Adam was to continue in was one that would bring about a new stage for humanity, what evidence do we have that each and every individual who came from Adam was supposed to pass this test for themselves for this result–a new age? If they weren’t supposed to do so, then in what sense would it have been necessary, had Adam passed this test, for that moral work to be imputed to his posterity?
Also, if Adam had confirmed us in righteousness so that none of his posterity would ever sin, would it have been necessary to also impute his active obedience to them?
That problem has been bothering me when I read either Norman Shepherd or those who diametrically oppose him. To my mind, it is something that needs to be asked but never is.